E2II GRAND TEST 3 for NEET 2023

1.Cells in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so depending on the requirement of the organism- The phase is

2.In animals, mitotic cell division is mostly seen in the

3.Match the column of Stage and Phenomenon

Stage                           Phenomenon

p.Metaphase i.      Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements

q.Zygotene ii.     Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores

r.Prophase iii.    Chromosomes start pairing together

s.Telophase iv.    Chromosomes are seen to be composed of two chromatids attached together at the centromere

4.Which of the following cell exit G₁ phase?

5.In the __________ and _________ phases the new DNA molecules formed are not distinct but intertwined

6.Which of the following stage is the best to study chromosomal morphology?

7.Identify the stage in the given diagram

8.In which stage Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform?

9.The apical and the lateral cambium in plant shows

10.How many times (cycles) the DNA replicate in meiosis-I and meiosis-II?

11.Read the following statements (I-IV) and select the correct sequence

I.Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the tendency of the recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from each other except at the sites of crossovers

II.Chromosome synapsis is accompanied by the formation of complex structure called synaptonemal complex

III.The four chromatids of each bivalent chromosome becomes distinct and clearly appears as tetrads

IV.The chromosomes become gradually visible under the light microscope

12.Which phase last for months or years in oocytes of some vertebrates?

13.The enzyme recombinase acts during

14.Dyad of the cells form in the stage

15.Interkinesis is followed by

16.Select the correct option with respect to mitosis

17.Meiosis-II performs

18.In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from parent  cell as well as amongst themselves  due to

19.All of the following statements are true except?

20.Asters are

21.Condensation of chromosomes is completed in which of the following stage?

22.All events of cell cycle is controlled by

23.Protein synthesis occurs during?

24.A microscope  was placed to see the undergoing events in a cell during its division phase, there we found chromosomal materials are untangled but there is no golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope.the cell is undergoing through

25.In plants, the formation of the new cell wall initiated by the precursor?

26.Mitochondria is distributed in the two daughter cells during

27.Liquid endosperm in coconut is formed due to

28.Assertion: Cell cycle is operated as per cell demand but cell growth is a continuous process

Reason: Cells divide to restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio

29.At the end of meiosis II the number of haploid cells are

30.Crossing over between two sister chromatids occur at

31.Identify the event undergoing in the given diagram

32.Genetic variability depends upon

33.Which is not correct about diplotene phase/

34.Diakinesis represents the transition of cell division to

35.Interkinesis is referred as

36.The major events of mitotic prophase include all of the following except?

37.Entry into the M phase is not allowed if

38.Synapsis means

39.In meiosis, chromatids segregate during?

40.After meiosis –I the resultant daughter cells have

41.During meiosis-I in humans, one of the daughter cells receives

42.Assertion: Karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis

Reason: Cytoplasmic division of the cells is called Karyokinesis

43.The most suitable material for studying mitosis in laboratory is

44.Mitotic apparatus is consists of

45.In which of the following stages, chromosomes are minimally coiled?

46.During the chemical analysis of a living tissue we obtain a filtrate this is the

47.The ptroteinaceous amino acids possesses the R group

48.All of the following are aromatic amino acid except?

49.Assertion: In solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acids changes

Reason: A particular property of amino acids is the ionizable nature of –NH2 and –COOH groups

50.The R group of the fatty acids attached to

51.Arachidonic acid is composed of

52.Identify the following

53.A common phospholipid found in cell membrane is

54.Nitrogen base are transformed into nucleosides after adding

55.All of the following are nucleosides except?

56.Vinblastine, Curcumin, etc. is used as drugs .they are basically

57.Biomolecules considered as bio macromolecules if the molecular weight is

58.The acid soluble pool represents

59.GLUT-4 Enables glucose transport into cells is

60.The most abundant protein in the animal world is

61.Inulin is a polymer of

62.In a polysaccharide chain, the reducing end resides at the

63.Assertion: The starch-I₂ complex is blue in colour.

Reason: Starch forms helical secondary structures and can hold I2 molecules in the helical portion

64.Complex polysaccharides are mostly

65.Exoskeletons of arthropods is made up of chitin , which is

66.

Formation of structures A and B could be due to

A                                                                       B

67.Adult human haemoglobin is made up of

68.Identify the structure form

69.Primary structure of protein is due to the presence of

70.Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

71.DNA of Watson and Crick  model was of

72.Identify A,B,C,D in the given diagram

73.In B-DNA the rise per base would be

74.The phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar form a bond called

75.In human body system every metabolic reactions are

76.Which of the following statements about enzymes are correct?

I.Enzymes do not alter the overall change in free energy for a reaction

II.Enzymes are highly specific fro reactions

III.Enzymes are proteins whose three dimensional shape is responsible for their function

IV.The energy input needed to start a chemical reaction is called activation energy

77.Glucose is converted to lactic acid in our skeletal muscle, it is an example of

78.The blood concentration of glucose in a normal healthy individual ranges between

79.Which of the following statement is Incorrect?

80.Which of the following is an enzyme but not protein?

81.Enzymes which catalyse joining of C-O, C-S, C-N, P-O etc. bonds are called

82.Staement-1: Co-factors play a crucial role in the catalytic activity of the enzyme

Statement-2: Catalytic activity is lost when co-factor is removed from the enzyme

83.Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of

84.Identify the enzyme catalysing the following reaction

85.Assertion: With the increase in substrate concentration, the velocity of the enzymatic reaction rises at first. The reaction ultimately reaches a maximum velocity (Vmax) which is not exceeded by any further rise in concentration of the substrate.

Reason: The enzyme molecules are fewer than the substrate molecules and after saturation of these molecules, there are no free enzyme molecules to bind with the additional substrate molecules.

86.Find out the correct sequence

I.The binding of the substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape, fitting more tightly around the substrate

II.The active site of the enzyme, now in close proximity of the substrate breaks the chemical bonds of the substrate and the new enzyme- product complex is formed

III.The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, fitting into the active site

IV.The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the free enzyme is ready to bind to another molecule of the substrate and run through the catalytic cycle once again

87.X and Y of the following diagram is respectively

88.coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and NADP contain

89.In an enzyme prosthetic groups are

90.In the control of bacterial pathogens which type of inhibtors are used?

91.A small mass attached to a string rotates on a frictionless table top as shown. If the tension on the string is increased by pulling the string causing the radius of the circular motion to decrease by a factor of 2, the kinetic energy of the mass will

92.Three-point masses ‘m’ each, are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a. Moment of inertia of the system about axis COD is-

93.A particle is moving in a circular orbit with constant speed. Select wrong alternate

94. ABC is a right angled triangular plate of uniform thickness. The sides are such that AB > BC as shown in figure. I1, I2 and I3 are moments of inertia about AB, BC and AC respectively. Then, which of the following relation is correct?

95.One quarter sector is cut from a uniform circular disc of radius R.  This sector has mass M.  It is made to rotate about a line perpendicular to its plane and passing through the centre of the original disc.  Its moment of inertia about the axis of rotation is

96.The total torque about pivot A provided by the forces shown in the figure, for L = 3.0 m, is :

97. For the same total mass, which of the following will have the largest moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of gravity and perpendicular to the plane of the body?

98.If the linear momentum is increased by 50%, the kinetic energy will increase by

99.A bullet of mass 5 g is fired at a velocity of 900 ms−1s-1 from a rifle of mass 2.5 kg.  What is the recoil velocity of the rifle

100.A man is sitting on a rotating table with his arms stretched outwards.  When he suddenly folds his arms inside, then

101.One circular ring and one circular disc both having the same mass and radius. The ratio of their moments of inertia about the axes passing through their centres and perpendicular to planes will be

102.The figure shows a uniform solid block of mass M and edge lengths a, b and c. Its M.O.I. about an axis through one edge and perpendicular (as shown) to the large face of the block is 

103.A constant torque of 1000 N-m turns a wheel of moment of inertial 200 kg−m^2 about an axis through its centre. Its angular velocity after 3 s is

104.A circular disc of radius r has a uniform thickness.  A circular hole of diameter equal to the radius of the disc has been cut out as shown.  The centre of gravity of the remaining disc lies on the diameter of the disc at a distance x to the left of the centre of the original disc.  The value of x is

105.A ‘T’ shaped object with dimensions shown in the figure, is lying on a smooth floor. A force ‘→F^→’ is applied at the point P parallel to AB, such that the object has only the translational motion without rotation. Find the location of P with respect to C

106.A stationary bomb explodes into two parts of masses 3kg and 1kg. The total KE of the two parts after explosion is 2400 J. The KE of smaller part is 

107.Three objects A, B and C are kept in a straight line on a frictionless horizontal surface. These have masses m, 2m and m respectivelly. The object A moves towards B with a speed 9 m/s and makes an elastic collision with it. Thereafter, B makes compelety inelastic collision with C. All motion occur on the same straight line. Find final speed of the object C

108.Two solid rubber balls P and Q having masses 200 g and 400 g respectively are moving in opposite directions with velocity of P equal to 0.3 m/s. After collision the two balls come to rest, then the velocity of Q is

109.A sphere collides with another sphere of identical mass. After collision, the two sphere move. The collision is inelastic. Then the angle between the directions of the two spheres is

110.A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts having same density and radii in the ratio 1:2. Their velocities are in the ratio

111.A body of mass 1.5 kg slide down a curved track which is quadrant of a circle of radias 0.75 meter. All the surfaces are frictionless. If the body starts from rest, its speed at the bottom of the track is ____ ( g = 10 m/s²)

112. A single conservative force F(x) acts on a 2.5 kg particle that moves along the x-axis. The potential energy U(x) is given by U(x) = (10 + (x – 4)²) where x is in meter. At x = 6.0m the particle has kinetic energy of 20J. what is the mechanical energy of the system ?

113.A bomb of mass 3.0 kg explodes in air into two pieces of masses 2.0 kg and 1.0 kg. The smaller mass goes at a speed of 80m/s. The total energy imparted to the two fragments is

114.The bob of simple pendulum (mass m and length l) dropped from a horizontal position strike a block of the same mass elastically placed on a horizontal frictionless table. The K.E. of the block will be

115.A gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity of 50 m/s. Because of this the gun is pushed back with a velocity of 1 m/s. The mass of the gun is

116.The decreases in the potential energy of a ball of mass 25 kg which falls from a height of 40 cm is

117.. The force constant of a wire is K and that of another wire is 3k when both the wires are stretched through same distance, if work done are W₁ and W₂, then.

118. A ball is released from the top of a tower. what is the ratio of work done by force of gravity in first, second and third second of the motion of the ball? [h_n α (2n – 1)]

119. A spring of spring constant 10³ N/m is stretched initially 4cm from the unstretched position. How much the work required to stretched it further by another 5 cm ?

120.The mass of a car is 1000 kg. How much work is required to be done on it to make it move with a speed of 36 km/h ?

121. A body of mass 6 kg is under a force, which causes a displacement in it given by S = ^2t3 /₃ (in m). Find the work done by the force in first one seconds.

122.A 8 kg mass moves along x – axis. Its accelerations as a function of its position is shown in the figure. What is the total work done on the mass by the force as the mass moves from x = 0 to x = 6cm ?

123.The work done by a force acting on a body is as shown in the graph.what is the total work done in covering an initial distance of 15m ?

124.A spring gun of spring constant 90×10²N /M is compressed 4cm by a ball of mass 16g. If the trigger is pulled, calculate the velocity of the ball.

125.. A uniform chain of length 2m is kept on a table such that a length of 50cm hangs freely from the edge of the table. The total mass of the chain is 5kg. What is the work done in pulling the entire chain on the table? (g = 10 ms²)

126.An automobile engine develops 100 kW when rotating at a speed of 1800 rev/min. What torque does it deliver?

127.In an orbital motion, the angular momentum vector is 

128.The relationship between force and position is shown in the figure given (in one dimensional case) calculate the work done by the force in displacing a body from x = 0 cm to x = 5 cm

129.Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine? (g=10 m/s2)

130.Consider a drop of rainwater having a mass of 1gm falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50 m/s. Take ‘g’ constant with a value 10 m/s². The work done by the
(i) gravitational force and the
(ii) resistive force of air is:

131.. Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in the figure. The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is

132.An engine pumps water through a hosepipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of 2 ms−1.The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kgm−1.What is the power of the engine?

133.. A block of mass M is attached to the lower end of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a ceiling and has force constant value k. The mass is released from rest with the spring initially unstretched. The maximum extension produced in the length of the spring will be

134.A particle is moving on the circular path of the radius (R) with centripetal acceleration ac=k^2Rt^2 Then the correct relation showing power (P) delivered by net force versus time (t) is 

135.A small block is shot into each of the four tracks as shown below. Each of the tracks rises to the same height. The speed with which the block enters the track is the same in all cases. At the highest point of the track, the normal reaction is maximum in:

136.The order of stability of alkyl, alkenyl and alkynyl carbanions is:

137.Acid strength of the conjugate acids of the following is:

138. In the molecular-orbital model of benzene, how many p electrons are delocalized about the ring?

139.

Which of the following is an enantiomer of the above structure?

140.If dichloromethane (DCM) and water are used for differential extraction, which one of the following statements is correct?

141.Number of possible stereoisomers of glucose are:

142.Aniline is a weaker base than ethylamine. This is due to?

143.Which one of the following is the strongest acid?

144.Which of the following compounds is incapable of exhibiting tautomerism?

145. Which order for the basic character of amine is correct for following compounds?

146.In which of the following compounds, delocalisation is not possible?

147.Which of the following intermediates is most stable?

148.

For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an organic compound was digested by Kjeldahl’s method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of M/10 sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required 20 mL of M/10 sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is,

149. Give the IUPAC name of the following compound:

150.Which of the following species is an electrophile?

151. The C-H bond distance is longest in?

152.Which of the following is the most stable cation?

153.. Identify the correct statement concerning the structure of CH₂=C=CH₂:

154.The compounds CH₃-O-C₃H₇ and C₂H₅-O-C₂H₅ exhibit:

155.If the reactivity factor for chlorine substitution through free radical by abstracting a primary H-atom is 1, then the ratio of amount of product A and B is:

156.How many hyperconjugative structures are possible for t-butyl carbocation?

157.. Which of the following is the strongest nucleophile?

158.Which of the following reagents will be able to distinguish between But-1-yne and But-2-yne?

159.The reaction of Cl₂ with toluene in the presence of FeCl₃ gives X and the reaction in the presence of light gives Y. Then, X and Y are:

160.Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form Pent-2-ene is:

I.β-elimination reaction

II.Hofmann Elimination

III.Dehydrohalogenation reaction

IV.Dehydration reaction

161.Which of the following alkanes cannot be prepared in good yield by Wurtz coupling?

162.

When propyne is treated with aqueous solution H₂SO₄ in the presence of HgSO₄, the major product is,

163.The number of monochlorinated products (excluding stereoisomers) obtained from the following reaction are:

164.Product A in the following reaction is:

165.Compare the rate of dehydration of I, II and III by concentrated H₂SO₄:

166.The major product formed in the following reaction is:

167.The major product formed in the following reaction is:

168.Which of the following will decolorize alkaline KMnO₄ solution?

169.Arrange the following in decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction:

170.

Major(Z) is:

171.

Which of the following compounds are antiaromatic:

172.Arrange the following alkenes in the increasing order of their heat of hydrogenation:

I.Propene

II.But-2-ene

III.2,3-Dimethyl but-2-ene

IV.2-Methyl but-2-ene

173.Consider the following sequence of reactions:

Identify C:

174.Choose the correct product of the following reaction:

175.Trans-2-Butene + Br2 gives:

176.An alkene A on reaction with O₃ and Zn/H₂O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene A gives B as the major product. The structure of the product B is:

177.In the following sequence of reactions:

Gas X is same as:

178.The number of isomers of C₄H₈ (one double bond) and C₅H₈ (one triple bond) respectively are:

179.

Double bond equivalent (degree of unsaturation) of A is:

180.Acetylene on reaction with hypochlorous acid gives: