E2IIPART TEST 5 for NEET 2023

1.A particle is moving in a circular orbit with constant speed. Select wrong alternate

2.A wheel of radius R rolls on the ground with a uniform velocity v. The velocity of topmost point relative to the bottommost point is

3.A constant torque of 1000 N-m turns a wheel of moment of inertial 200 kg−m2 about an axis through its centre. Its angular velocity after 3 s is

4.If value of acceleration due to gravity is ‘g’ at a height 50 km above the surface of earth, then at what depth inside the earth will the acceleration due to gravity be same as ‘g’?

5.A wheel is at rest. Its angular velocity increases uniformly and becomes 80 rad/s after 5 s. The total angular displacement is:

6.A solid cylinder rolls down an inclined plane that has friction sufficient to prevent sliding. The ratio of rotational energy to total kinetic energy is

7.If the equation for the displacement of a particle moving on a circular path is given by θ=2t^3+0.5, where θ is in radian and t is in second, then the angular velocity of the particle after 2s is 

8.A small mass attached to a string rotates on a frictionless table top as shown. If the tension on the string is increased by pulling the string causing the radius of the circular motion to decrease by a factor of 2, the kinetic energy of the mass will

9.The total torque about pivot A provided by the forces shown in the figure, for L = 3.0 m, is :

10.For the same total mass, which of the following will have the largest moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of gravity and perpendicular to the plane of the body?

11.A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder, both of the same mass and same external diameter are released from the same height at the same time on an inclined plane. Both roll down without slipping. Which one will reach the bottom first?

12.A wheel is rotating about an axis through its centre at 720 r.p.m. It is acted on by a constant torque opposing its motion for 8 seconds to bring it to rest finally. The value of torque is Nm is (given l = 24/π kg m^2)

.13. Assertion : The speed of whirlwind in a tornado is alarmingly high.

Reason    : If no external torque acts on a body, its angular velocity remains conserved.

1. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3. If assertion is true but reason is false.
4. If both assertion and reason are false.

14.A stationary bomb explodes into two parts of masses 3kg and 1kg. The total KE of the two parts after explosion is 2400 J. The KE of smaller part is 

15.Two balls of equal masses have a head-on collision with speed 6 m/s each. If the coefficient of restitution is 1/3, the speed of each ball after impact will be

16.An automobile engine develops 100 kW when rotating at a speed of 1800 rev/min. What torque does it deliver?

17.The gravitational potential difference between the surface of a planet and 10 m above is 5 J/kg. If the gravitational field is supposed to be uniform, the work done in moving a 2 kg mass from the surface of the planet to a height of 8 m is

18.A planet is moving in an elliptical orbit. If T, V, E, and L stand, respectively, for its kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy, total energy and angular momentum about the center of orbit, then

19.If A is the areal velocity of a planet of mass M, its angular momentum is

20.The height of the point vertically above the earth’s surface, at which acceleration due to gravity becomes 1% of its value at the surface is (Radius of the earth = R)

21. Escape velocity on a planet is veve. If radius of the planet remains same and mass becomes 4 times, the escape velocity becomes

22.The mass of the earth is 81 times that of the moon and the radius of the earth is 3.5 times that of the moon. The ratio of the escape velocity on the surface of earth to that on the surface of moon will be

23.Which of the following is the evidence to show that there must be a force acting on earth

and directed towards the sun?

24.The gravitational force between two stones of mass 1 kg each separated by 1 metre in vacuum is

25.The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is E=K/x^3 in the x-direction. (K is a constant). Taking the gravitational potential to be zero at infinity, its value at a distance x is

26.The ratio of the K.E. required to be given to the satellite to escape earth’s gravitational field to the K.E. required to be given so that the satellite moves in a circular orbit just above earth atmosphere is:

27.Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation of acceleration due to gravity with the height above the earth’s surface?

28.The acceleration due to gravity on the planet A is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on planet B. A man jumps to a height of 2m on the surface of A. What is the height of jump by the same person on the planet B?

29.Imagine a new planet having the same density as that of earth but it is 3 times bigger than the earth in size. If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g and that on the surface of the new planet is g’, then

30.The ratio of radii of earth to another planet is 2/3 and the ratio of their mean densities is 4/5. If an astronaut can jump to a maximum height of 1.5 m on the earth, with the same effort, the maximum height he can jump on the planet is

31.The average count of leukocytes in the blood range between

32.Name the formed elements of blood

33.The percentage of eosinophil of total WBC in blood is

34.Basophil secretes all except

35.Which of the following will be the consequence if the platelet count is >1, 500, 00 ?

36.The source of thrombocytes in human body is

37.The severe problems of clumping of blood during transfusion basically refers to

38.This condition called Erythroblastosis foetalis represents as

39.Thrombokinase catalyse the reaction of

40.Lymphatic system collects tissue fluid and drains it back to the

41.Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

I.Heart, the ectodermally derived organ

II.The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by a valve formed of three muscular flaps or cusps, the tricuspid valve

III.A bundle of nodal fibres, atrio-ventricular bundle (AV bundle) continues from the SAN which passes through the atrio-ventricular septa to emerge on the top of the interventricular septum and immediately divides into a right and left bundle

IV.The SAN can generate the maximum number of action potentials, i.e., 70-75 min^–1

42.In an ECG, which of the following is the correct representation of the respective activity?

43.‘A’ is the rhythmic contraction and relaxation in the aorta and its main arteries. A is

44.Tunica media is

45.Cardiac output is increased by

46.The following root system is common in

47.Identify the following regions

48.Statement-1: The stems of maize and sugarcane have supporting roots coming out of the upper nodes of the stem

Statement-2: Stem tendrils which develop from axillary buds

49.A’ is

50.All are correct about leaves except

51.Alstonia is a good example of

52.Identify the group of plants possessing leaf tendrils

53.Select the correct statements from below

I.Maize and sugarcane have prop roots

II.Pneumatophores are seen in Rhizophora

III.Adventitious roots arise from radicle rather than plumule

IV.Fibrous roots originate from the base of the stem

54.How many statements is/are true?

I.The cells of region of elongation are very small, thin-walled and with dense protoplasm

II.In banana, the lateral branches originate from the basal and underground portion of the main stem, grow horizontally beneath the soil and then come out obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots

III.The leaf is attached to the stem by the leaf base

IV.Spines for defence as in cacti are modified stem

55.Leaves arise from the

56.Which of the following plant has the organ of perennation?

57.Euphorbia uses their stem to

58.Which type of venation is present in the given diagram?

59.Pitcher plants have

60.In some leguminous plants the leaf base may become swollen, which is called the _____________

61.The vapour pressure of water at 300 K in a closed container is 0.4 atm. If the volume of container is doubled, its vapour pressure at 300 K will be?

62.The rate of diffusion methane is twice that of gas X. The molecular mass of X is:

63.A gas deviates from ideal behaviour at a high pressure because its molecules:

64.The critical volumes of four gases A, B, C, D are respectively 0.025 L, 0.312 L, 0.245 L, 0.432 L. The gas with highest value of van der Waals constant b is:

65.The volume of 2.8 g of carbon monoxide at 27^oC and 0.0821 atm is:

66. When you heat a sample of gas, what happens to the particles that make up the gas?

67.In order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%, the pressure of the gas should be:

68. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it indicates that:

69.In which of the following, does the given amount of chlorine exert the least pressure in a vessel of capacity 1 dm³ at 273 K?

70.1 mole of oxygen at 273 K and 1 mole of sulphur dioxide at 546 K are taken in two separate containers, then:

71.In the equation of state of an ideal gas, PV=nRT, the value of R depends on:

72.Which of the following statements is NOT true about the effect of increase in temperature on the distribution of molecular speeds in a gas?

73.With the increase in pressure, the mean free path:

74.Number of gas molecules present in 1 mL of gas at 0^oC and 1 atm is called Loschmidt number. Its value is about:

75. “Air at sea level is dense”- It is a practical application of:

76.Third law of thermodynamics provides a method to evaluate which property?

77.The enthalpy of vaporisation of a substance is 8400 J mol^-1 and its boiling point is –173 °C. The entropy change for vaporisation is:

78.In a reversible process the system absorbs 600 kJ heat and performs 250 kJ work on the surroundings. What is the increase in the internal energy of the system?

79.Which of the following is true for the reaction, H₂O (l) ≒ H₂O (g) at 100°C and 1 atm pressure?

80.Calculate the heat required to make 6.4 kg CaC₂ from CaO(s) and C(s) from the reaction: CaO(s) + 3C(s) → CaC₂(s) + CO (g) given that ∆_fH^o (CaC₂) = -14.2 kcal. ∆_fH° (CO) = -26.4 kcal.

81.In a system where ∆E = -51.0 kJ, a piston expanded against a p_ext of 1.2 atm giving a change in volume of 32.0 L. What was the change in heat of this system?

82.. A system absorb 10 kJ of heat at constant volume and its temperature rises from 27oC to 37oC. The value of ∆ U is:

83.. An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCA as shown in P-V diagram. The net work done by the gas during the cycle is equal to:

84.In which of the following process, a maximum increase in entropy is observed?

85.Which thermodynamic function accounts automatically for enthalpy and entropy both?

86.The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are -393.5 and -283.0 kJ mol^-1

respectively. The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide is:

87.The amount of the heat released when 20 mL 0.5 M NaOH is mixed with 100 mL 0.1 M HCl is x kJ. The heat of neutralisation is:

88.Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is correct?

89.The temperature of the system decreases in an ______

90.Which of the following salts will have maximum cooling effect when 0.5 mole of the salt is dissolved in same amount of water. Integral heat of solution at 298 K is given for each salt?