Grand Test 6 For NEET 2021

1.A conducting loop having a capacitor is moving outward from the magnetic field then which of the plate of capacitor will be positive

2.Some magnetic flux is changed from a coil of resistance 10 ohm. As a result an induced current is developed in it, which varies with time as shown in figure. The magnitude of change in flux through the coil in webers is:

3.A small square loop of wire of side ‘l’ is placed inside a large square loop of side ‘L'(L>>l). If the loops are coplanar and their centres coincide, the mutual induction of the system is directly proportional to:

4.A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately :

5.In the circuit shown in figure, L is an ideal inductor and E is ideal cell. Switch s is closed at t =0 then:

6.A current is made of two components, a DC component of I₁=3A and an AC component given by I₂= 4√2sin wt A. Then the reading of the hot-wire ammeter is:

7.An inductor of 200/π mH, a capacitor of 10^-3/π F and a resistor of 10 ohm are connected in series with an AC source of 220 V, 50 Hz. The phase angle of the circuit is:

8.In LCR series circuit an alternating EMF and current are given by equation e=200sin 100t volt, i=100sin(100t+π/3)mA. The average power dissipated in the circuit will be:

9.In the circuit shown in the figure neglecting source resistance the voltmeter and ammeter reading respectively will be:

10. The r.m.s current in an AC circuit is 2A. If the wattless current be √3A, what is the power factor?

11.The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave varies with time of amplitude 2V/m propagating along x-axis. The average energy density of the electromagnetic wave is(in J/m³):

12.The electric field for an EM wave is E=E₀ sin[π(12×10¹⁵t-6×10⁷x)]. what is the refractive index of the medium?

13. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other such that Ray of light incident on the first mirror and parallel to the second is reflected from the second mirror parallel to the first mirror. The angle between two mirrors is:

14.When an object is at a distance u₁ and u₂ from a lens, real image and a virtual image is formed respectively having same magnification. the focal length of the lens is:

15.The diameter of aperture of a Plano-convex lens is 6 cm and its maximum thickness is 3mm. if the velocity of light in the material of the lens is 2×10⁸ m/s its focal length is:

16.A thin equiconvex glass lens of refractive index 1.5 has power of 5D when the lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive index n, it acts as a divergent lens of focal length 100cm. the value of n of liquid is:

17.a convex lens of focal length 100 cm and a concave lens of focal length 10 cm are placed coaxially at a separation of 90 cm if a parallel beam of light is incident on convex lens, then after passing through two lenses the beam

18. Diverging meniscus lens of 1.5 refractive index has concave surfaces of radii 3 and 4 cm. The position of the image, if an object is placed 12 cm front of the lens is:

19.A transparent cube of glass contains a small air bubble. its apparent distance when viewed through one face of the cube is 10 cm and when viewed from the opposite face is 4 cm. the edge of the cube is:

20. In young’s double slit experiment the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is  λ is I. intensity of light at a point where the path difference becomes λ/3 is:

21.On introducing thin film in the path of one of the two interfering being the central fringe shift by one fringe width. If n =1.5, the thickness of the film is (wavelength of monochromatic light is λ):

22.Two beams of light of intensity I₁ and I₂ interfere to give an interference pattern. if the ratio of maximum intensity to that of minimum intensity is 25/9. then I₁/I₂ is:

23.The first diffraction minima due to a single slit diffraction is at an angular position of 30° for a light of wavelength 500 nm. The width of the slit is:

24.The magnification produced by an astronomical telescope for normal adjustment is 10 and the length of the telescope is 1.1m. the magnification when the image is formed at least distance of distinct vision is:

25.The diameter of the lens of a telescope is 0.61m. wavelength of light used is 500 nm. the resolving power of the telescope is:

26.a photosensitive surface is receiving light of wavelength 500 nm at a rate of 10^-7 J/s. If only 1% photons be effective for electron emission, then the number of electrons ejected per second is:

27. A proton accelerated through a potential V has de Broglie wavelength λ . Then de Broglie wavelength of an Alpha particle when accelerated through the same potential V is:

28.The potential energy of an electron in an excited hydrogen atom  is -6.8eV. Its angular momentum is:

29.The ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. Electron in the ground state of a hydrogen atom absorbs a photon of energy 12.75 eV. How many different spectral lines can one expect when the electron makes a downward transition?

30. Let F1 be the frequency of second line of lyman series and F2 be the frequency of first line of balmer series then frequency of first line of lyman series is given by:

31. Radon-222 has a half-life of 3.8 days. If one starts with 0.064 kg of radon-222 the quantity of radon-222 left after 19 days will be:

32.Two radioactive samples have decay constants 15x and 3x. if they have the same number of nuclei initially, the ratio of number of nuclei after a time of 1/6x is:

33.The initial number of atoms of two radioactive substances are in the ratio 1:2 and their half lives are 1 yr and 2 yrs respectively. The ratio of their activities after 4 years will be:

34. If the diode connected as shown in fig is ideal then the current through the diode will be:

35.In the given circuit the current through the zener diode is:

36. The following configuration of gates is equivalent to:

37. a bar magnet of length l and magnetic dipole moment M is bent in the form of an arc, such that it forms 120° angle at the centre. New magnetic moment of the bent magnet will be:

38.a galvanometer of resistance 20 ohm shows a deflection of 10 divisions when a current of 1mA is passes through it. If a shunt of 4 ohm is connected and there are 50 divisions on the scale the range of the galvanometer will be:

39.If dip circle is placed in a vertical plane at an angle of 30° to the magnetic meridian, the dip needle makes an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The real dip at the place is:

40.The magnetic field intensity at the point O of a loop with current I as shown in figure is:

41.Two small identical spheres having charges 10 C and -90 C attract each other with a force of F Newton. If they ere kept in contact and then separated by same distance, the new force between them is:

42.A semicircular ring of radius r having charge densityλ, positive and negative in two halves. The electric field at the centre will be                                      

43. Electric charges q,q,-2q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side l. The magnitude of the electric dipole moment of the system is:

44.Two identical thin metal rings of radius R metre are coaxially placed at a distance R from each other. If Q1 and Q2 coulomb of charges are uniformly spread over the respective rings, the work done in moving an another charge q from the centre of one ring to the other ring is:

45.A potentiometer has uniform potential gradient across it. Two cells connected in series (i) to support each other and (ii) to oppose each other, are balanced over 6 m and 2m respectively on the potentiometer wire. The emfs of the cells are in the ratio of:

46.. CsBr crystallizes in a body centered cubic lattice. The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the atomic mass of Cs is 133u and that of Br is 80u, the density of CsBr is 

47.The melting point of RbBr is 682°C while that for NaF is 988°C. The principal reason that the melting point of      

        NaF is much higher than that of RbBr is that

48. The nearest neighbour distance in a crystal system of side length a is √3a/2 in

49.In water which of the following salts has the same value of van’t Hoff factor as that of the salt [Pt(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl₂

       (Assume complete dissociation of salts in solution)

50. An ideal solution of benzene and toluene boils at 1atm pressure at 90°C.At 90°C,benzene has a vapour pressure

      of 1022 mm of Hg and toluene has a vapour pressure of 406mm of Hg.The mole fraction of benzene in the

      solution is

51.Desalination of sea water is done using

52.E⁰_red(standard reduction potential) of different half-cells are given

       E⁰_Cu2+/Cu=0.34 V ;  E⁰_Zn2+/Zn=-0.76 V

       E⁰_Ag+/Ag=0.80 V ;  E⁰_Mg2+Mg=-2.37 V            

       In which cell is    G⁰ most negative?

53. Λ_m⁰ of NaCl, HCl and CH₃COONa are 126.4,425.9,91.0 S cm² mol^-1 respectively. Λ_m⁰ for CH₃COOH will be

54.What will be the partial pressure of H₂(g) to make the E⁰_cell value 0 under neutral pH

55.The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following graphs?

56.. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10^-2s^-1. How much time will it take for 20g of the reactant to reduce to 5g?

57.Rate constant k of a reaction is dependent on temperature k=Ae^-Ea/RT ; k has the least value at

58.Rubber plating and chrome tanning of leather is based on

59.Smoke has generally blue tinge due to

60.On adding AgNO₃ solution to KI solution, a negatively charged colloidal sol is obtained when

        they are in

61.Cassiterite is an ore of

62.Which of the following processes is related with the removal of Sulphur by heating in air

63.Phosphorous trichloride, PCl₃, undergoes hydrolysis to produce an oxoacid.It has the formula

64.The acid having O-O linkage

65.Fluorine reacts with dilute NaOH and forms a gaseous product A. The bond angle in the molecule is

66.Which of the following ions are possible?

67.Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions?

68.Spin only magnetic moment of the compound Hg[Co(SCN)₄] is

69.Lanthanoid for which +2 and +3 oxidation states are common is

70.Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) for low spin d⁴ octahedral complexes is

71.Facial and Meridional isomerism will be exhibited by

72.Which hydrogen is abstracted most easily by bromination in the following compound?

73.The reaction,

         gives the major product as

74.D is

75.The product obtained from the following reaction is

             76.

77.What is A in the following reaction?

78.Mention the major product

79.Rank the following compounds in order of increasing basicity

80.In the following reaction ,

Intermediate is

81.Which of the following is a secondary amino acid?

82.What is the complementary strand for a single stranded DNA with the sequence TCGA?

83.IUPAC name of polystyrene is

84.Caprolactum is the monomer of

85.Which of the following is an antibiotic?

86.Select the CORRECT statement

87.One of the following named reactions is an example of “disproportionation reaction”. Name it

88.o-toluic acid on reaction with Br₂/Fe gives

89.What is the DBE of the final product C?

90.The complex

          can be formally formed from K₂[PtCl₄] by which of the following sequences of substitution of the chloride ions?

91.Sucker formed from

92.Microsporangia can be located at

93.In parthenogenesis

94.External fertilisation facilitates

95.The embryo sac of the female gametophytes are formed when the meiotic division is in

96.In monosporic development which of the statement is correct

97.Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by

98.Polygenic traits can be explained by

99.Phenylketonuria is caused bY

100.Female heterogamety is observed in

101.Point mutation has been observed in

102.Pollen grains are living fossils because of

103.In most of the plant species pollen grains are shed at

104.Pollen tablets are basically

105.

The figure is an example ofV

106.

This above figure is a flowering plant which is,

107.Water pollination is observed in

108.Pollen grains of water pollinated flowers are protected by

109.Mendel designed a hybridisation experiment with a tall and dwarf pea plants to study the inheritance of one gene. He observed the F1 or the first hybrid generation and again crossed them by self-pollination. Now the traits were expressed in a proportion of,

110.Inheritance of Antirrhinum sp. And pea seeds are good example of

111.A man with blood group B marries a woman with blood group A and their child is having B group. What is the possible genotype of child?

112.Cystic fibrosis is hereditary disease that affects the respiratory  and digestive system, cystic fibrosis occurs when two recessive genes (cc) are present. A person with one allele for cystic fibrosis is called a carrier (Cc) of the disease. If the mother is a carrier of the disease and the father is homozygous dominant, what are the chances that their child will be a carrier of CF?

113. find out the odd one 

114.DNA has evolved from RNA because of

115.If lactose is produced in the growth medium of the bacteria, the lactose is transported into the cells through the action of permease. Which is encoded by,

116.Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at the

117.UTR is present at

118.Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology is a hormonal approach of

119.Green revolution is referred to

120.Himgiri wheat variety is resistant to

121.Bio fortification refers to which of the following?

122.Which organism gives particular flavour to Roquefort cheese?

123.Commercially citric acid is produced from

124.Father of ecology in India is

125.Very small animals are rarely found in polar regions because of

126.

A represents

127.Zooplanktons are

128.Lichens on the rocks in a bare land are

129.The products of ecosystem processes are called

130.

Which statement is true regarding the above graph?

131.Gemmules are basically

132.Hybridoma cells are

133.

The presented pedigree is showing an inheritance of genetic disorder called

134.Identify the possible link “A” in the following food chain

      Plant -> Insect -> Frog ->“A” -> Eagle

135.During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate

136.

The phenomenon encystation takes place

137.

‘A’ is

138.Chlamydomonus zygote divides to form

139.

Which is the following function of ‘A’ type cells

140.Which is the two wrong statement regarding uterus?

i.Myometrium undergoes cyclical changes during the menstrual cycle

ii.Uterus is supported by ligaments attached to the pelvic wall

iii.The external thin membranous layer of uterus is called endometrium

iv.Oviduct is connected to uterus by isthmus

141.Spermiation defined by

142.Androgen secretion is stimulated by

143.Find out the odd one

144.Rupture of Graafian follicle and release of ovum will be augmented in the absence of

145.Which of the following is the correct order sperms travel through them

1. I.Epididymis
2. II.Oviduct
3. III.Ejaculatory duct

146.Corpus luteum formation is essential for

147.

The figure depicts,

148.Oldest life came from pre-existing inorganic molecules namely

149.According to anthropologist Homo sapiens arose in

150.Flippers of penguin and dolphins are example of,

151.Darwin’s Finches exemplify

152.Assertion : In an isolated island when new population become different species, the effect is called founder Effect

Reason: Mutation

153.Ferns evolved in

154.Which statement is wrong

155.Common cold is caused by

156.Virus infected cells secrets proteins called interferon which is basically

157.Colostrum contains

158.Autoimmunity is referred to

159.Allergens are confronted by

160.Retroviruses have the basic genetic material

161.Which one is used for efficient transformation of DNA into a bacterium

162.For the first six months of life, a child depends on antibodies

163.Match the list

164.Macrophages are derived from

165.In EcoRI, ‘R’ refers to

166.

Which statement is true regarding this known chemical structure?

167.

The two sticky ends join to form

168.

This gel runs in the following direction

169.DNA polymerase used in the PCR, isolated from

170.‘Clot buster’, used to remove clots from the blood vessels of the patient who have undergone myocardial infarction, is basically

171.PCR is considered as revolutionary technique because all of these, except

172.Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA upon

entry with

173.DNA of a bacterium is not cleaved by own restriction enzyme because the recognition DNA sequence are

174.Random  genetic  drift in a  population  probably results from

175.Most abundant organic compound on earth is

176.Agarose extracted from sea weeds are used in

177.HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying

178.Infectious proteins are present in

179.Expressed sequence tags are,

180.Commonly used  vectors  for  human  genome sequencing   are