Grand Test 8 For NEET 2021

1. A compound contains two types of atoms, X and Y. Its crystal structure is a cubic lattice with X atoms at the corners of the unit cell and Y at the body center. The simplest formula is:

2.At what angles for the first order diffraction, spacing between two planes is respectively λ and λ/2?

3.The vapour pressure of pure benzene, C₆H₆ at 50^o C is 268 torr. How many moles of a non-volatile solute per mol of benzene is required to prepare a solution of benzene having a vapour pressure of 167 torr at 50^o C?

4.pH of a 0.1 M monobasic acid is found to be 2. Hence, its osmotic pressure at a given temperature T K is?

5. For the cell Zn I Zn²⁺(C₁) II Zn²⁺(C₂) I Zn, ΔG is negative if?

6.Given E^o_Ag+/Ag = 0.80V, E^o_Mg2+/Mg = -2.37V, E^o_Cu2+/Cu = 0.34V, E^o_Hg2+/Hg = 0.79V. Which of the following statement is correct?

7. A    —— >  Product, [A₀] = 2M. After 10 min reaction is 10% completed. If -d[A]/dt = k[A], then t_1/2 is approximately?

8. A particular reaction increases by a factor of 2 when the temperature is increased from 27^o C to 37^o C. Hence, activation energy of the reaction is?

9.Gold number of haemoglobin is 0.03. Hence, how much haemoglobin is required for 100mL of gold sol so that gold is not coagulated by 10mL of 10% NaCl solution?

10. Which one of the following is not a method of concentration of metals?

11.The true statement for the acids of phosphorous H₃PO₂, H₃PO₃ and H₃PO₄ is:

12. Nitrogen is obtained by thermal decomposition of?

13.All of the following have tetrahedral shape except?

14.Which of the following gas is insoluble in water?

15.Interhalogen compounds can be:

16.

Which is correct order of electron affinity among group 17 elements?

17.Molecule(s) possessing two-centered-two-electron bond and three-centered-two-electron bonds would include:

18.Which is the most basic fluoride?

19.Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method? 

20.

Which of the following lanthanide element forms stable +4 oxidation state?

21.CN^– is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that:

22.For a high spin d⁴ octahedral complex the crystal field splitting energy will be,

23.According to IUPAC nomenclature, Sodium nitroprusside is named as?

24.

25.When CH₃CH₂Br reacts with sodium acetylide, the main product formed is?

26. In S_E of chlorobenzene, major product formed by substitution is at?

27.Highest dipole moment is of?

28.

29.

30. p-cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline medium to give the compound A which adds hydrogen cyanide to form the compound B. The latter on acidic hydrolysis gives chiral carboxylic acid C which is?

31.

Rank the following compounds in order of their increasing acidity (weakest acid first):

32.

33.

34.

35.

End product of the following sequence of reaction is:

36.

In the following sequence of reaction,

Select the correct statement about D:

37.Phenol and benzoic acid can be distinguished by:

38.

39.Which one is most volatile?

40.Which of the following undergoes coupling at the fastest rate?

41.Hoffmann degradation of NH₂CONH₂(urea) gives:

42. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of most proteins?

43.The catalyst that is used for olefin polymerisation is:

44.Paracetamol is an:

45.

46.A charge Q is divided into two parts q and Q-q and separated by a distance R. The force of repulsion between them will be maximum when:

47.An electron starting from rest near one of the plates of a parallel plate capacitor at separation ‘d’ reaches the other plate in time t. Then the surface charge  density on the plates is:(m is the mass  of electron)

48.In the given network the equivalent resistance between points A and B is:

49.Two capacitors one of capacitance C and another C/2 are connected with a battery of V volt. then heat produced in connecting wire for charging the capacitors is:

50.In the given circuit measuring instruments are ideal then reading of ammeter A₁ is:

51.An electric dipole is situated in an uniform electric field E, whose dipole moment is p and moment of inertia is I.if the dipole is displaced slightly from the equilibrium position then the angular frequency of its oscillation is:

52.A magnetised straight wire of moment 3.14 A-m² is bent in the form of a semicircle; then the new magnetic moment will be:

53.The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular loop and at the centre of a square loop, made from the same length of the wire and carrying same current will be:

54.The current in the winding of a toroid is 2A. There are 400 turns and the mean circumferential length is 40 cm. If the axial magnetic field is 1.0T, the relative permeability of the core is near to:

55.in a series resonant LCR circuit if L is increased by 25% and C is decreased by 20% then the resonant frequency will:

56.In the circuit shown in figure what is the value of I₁ just after pressing the key K?

57.In the given LCR circuit the voltage across the terminals of a resistance and current will

58.At two points P and Q on screen in YDSE from slits S1 and S2(same intensity) have a path differences of 0 & λ/4 respectively. The ratio of intensities at P and Q will be:

59.²³²Th₉₀ disintegrates to ²⁰⁸Pb_82. The number of alpha and beta particle emitted respectively are:

60.Nucleus _zX^A emits an Alpha particle with velocity v. the recoil speed of daughter nucleus is:

61.The Davisson-Germer experiment is the direct evidence of:

62.Two identical bar magnets are kept as shown in the figure. the direction of resultant magnetic field, indicated by arrow head at the point P is approximately:

63. The first diffraction minima due to a single slit diffraction is at an angular position of 30° for a light of wavelength 500 nm. The width of the slit is:

64. Figure shows a small concave mirror with CP as its principal axis. A ray XY is incident on the mirror. which of the following rays can be the reflected ray?

65.An object is placed in front of a spherical mirror whose two times magnified image is formed on screen. Then choose the correct option:

66. An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver 300 MW. The energy released due to fission of each nucleus of U²³⁸ atom is 170MeV. The number of Uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be (approximately):

67.An elementary particle of mass m and charge +e is projected with velocity v to a much more massive particle of charge +Ze.what is the closest possible approach of the incident particle:(k=1/4πε)

68.In an n-p-n transistor, 108 electrons enters in the emitter in 10^-8 s. if 1% of electrons are lost in the base, the current amplification factor β of the transistor is:

69.The rms value of potential difference shown in the figure is:

70.What should be the minimum acceptance angle at the air-core interface of an optical fibre, if n₁ and n₂  be the refractive indices of the core and the cladding respectively:

71. A current time curve is shown in the following diagram. this type of current is passed in the primary coil of transformer. The nature of induced emf in the secondary coil will be:

72.A Circular loop of wire and a long straight wire carrying current I_c and I_e respectively as shown in figure. Assuming that these are placed in the same plane, magnetic field will be zero at the center of the loop when the separation H is:

73.Identify the operation performed by the circuit giving below:

74.A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure. The current through the diode is:

75.The beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are:

76. A charge particle is released in presence of electric(E) and magnetic field(B), if after sometime its velocity is v then:

77. In  YDSE how many Maxima can be obtained on the screen if wavelength of light used is 200 nm and d=700 nm:

78.A square object of area 100 cm² is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror, if the lateral magnification of the mirror for the above object position is 0.4, then the area of the image will be:

79. Steel is preferred over soft iron core for permanent magnet because:

80.Two thin prisms of flint glass, With refracting angles 6° and 8° respectively , posses dispersive power in the ratio:

81. Assuming the diode to be ideal with zero forward resistance, current I in the following circuit is:

82.Pure Si at 500k has equal number of electron(n_e) and hole(n_h) concentration of 1.5×10¹⁶ m^-3. doping by Indium increases n_h to 4.5×10²² m^-3. The doped semiconductor is of:

83. What is the coefficient of mutual inductance when the magnetic flux changes by 2×10^-2 Wb and changes in current is 0.01 A-

84. Five elements A, B, C, D and E have work functions 1.2 eV, 2.4 eV, 3.6 eV, 4.8 eV  and 6 eV respectively. if light of wavelength 400 nm is allowed to fall on these elements, then photoelectrons are emitted by:

85.The resistance of a bulb filament is 100 ohm at a temperature of 100°C. If the temperature coefficient of resistance be 0.005 per °C, its resistance will become 200 ohm at a temperature of-

86. Huygen’s principle of secondary wavelets may be used to:

87. Which of the following loop is in stable equilibrium

88.The half life of radium is 1620 yr and its atomic mass is 226. The number of atoms that will decay from its 1g sample per second will be:

89.The radioactive decay constant of  Sr⁹⁰ is 7.88×10^-10 s^-1. The activity of 15 mg of this isotope will be:

90.A point object is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length f = 20 cm at a distance of 40 cm to the left of it. The diameter of the lens is 10 cm. An eye is placed 60cm to right of the lens and a distance h below the principal Axis the maximum value of h to see the image is:

91.A developing pollen grain get its nourishment from the

92.Sporogenous tissue can give rise to microspore tetrad. These tissues are located at

93.Read the following statements and find out how many of them are correct?

I.In a pollen grain vegetative cells are basically the food reservoir with irregular shaped nucleus

II.In over 60% of angiosperms, the generative cell divides mitotically to give rise 3-celled pollen grain stage before shedding.

III.Pollen sacs develop from microsporangia

IV.Dithecous anther is a characteristic feature of angiosperms

94.Pollen banks are used for

95.Meiocytes are

96. A is

97.All statements are true except

98.In cattle there is an allele called dwarf which, in the heterozygote, produces calves with legs which are shorter than normal. This again, is homozygous lethal (the homozygous dwarf calves spontaneously abort early or a stillborn). If a dwarf bull is mated to 400 dwarf cows, what phenotypic ratio to you expect among the living offspring?

99.The term linkage was coined by

100.Male honey bee sperm developed from

101.Sickle cell anaemia exhibits

102.Klinefelter’s  Syndrome is characterised by

103.

Which type of inheritance has been shown in the above figure?

104.Higher level of chromatin packaging requires

105.DNA is the genetic material was proved by

106.How many statements are correct in the following statements?

I.The strand which does not code for anything ,is known as to coding strand

II.In recombinant DNA procedures the vectors provide the Origin of replication

III.DNA polymerase need not a template to initiate catalysation reaction

IV.Regulatory sequences of structural genes do not code for any RNA or protein

107.RNA polymerase II is responsible for the transcription of

108.Aminoacylation of tRNA is basically

109.The activity of the Repressor depends on whether

110.When the substrate for an enzyme stimulate synthesis of that enzyme, it is called a gene

110.If a genetic code is degenerate, it means that

112.UUA is

113.All statements are true except

114The hormonal treatment used in MOET is

115.Germplasm collection is referred to

116.Find out correct order regarding plant breeding program

117.Sonalika and Kalyan sona are

118.Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in Mung bean has been possible due to

119.Methylophilus methylotrophus uses have become popular cause it has

120.Find out mismatches

I.Explants-> Somatic hybridisation

II.Somaclones -> genetically identical plants

III.Atlas 66 -> high protein containing wheat

IV.Pomato-> Explants

121.Match the column

122.Bottled juices are more clearer than homemade juices because they contain

123.Flocs are

124.Assertion: Some snails and fish go into aestivation

 Reason: To avoid heat and dessication

125.Natality is defined by

126.Name the interaction

I and II are the following

127.Trees occupies the layer of the forest, shrubs the second and herbs and grasses occupy the bottom layer—This exemplify

128.The percentage of energy transferred to each trophic level from lower trophic level is

129.Which is common in all succession whether taking place in water or on land?

130.The difference between carbon and phosphorus cycle is

131.India has genetically different strains of rice of about

132.Out of every 10 animals there are ………….insects

133.All statements are true except

134.Assertion: Species area relationship for frugivorous (fruit-eating) birds and mammals in the tropical forests of different continents, the slope is found to be 1.15.

Reason: In very large areas like continents the slope of the line has been analysed to be much steeper

135.Government of India passed the Environment (Protection) Act in

136.Runner is

137.Vegetative, reproductive and senescence phases are not vivid in

138.

The above mentioned structure in the figure is capable of

139.Which is common between fern, human beings, birds and reptiles?

140.Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

141.Testicular lobules are comprised of about……….. number of compartments

142.Vasa efferentia open into

143.Fallopian tubes are

144.Find out the odd one

145.The glandular layer of uterus is

146.Which is the milk secreting structure of mammary lobe?

147.Family planning program in India was initiated in

148.Fertile period is defined as

149.LNG-20 facilitates contraception by

150.The medical termination of pregnancy Act was enacted in

151.MTPs are considered to be safe up to

152.Venereal diseases that can be completely cured expect

153.ZIFT method is applied when the embryo is of

154.In ICSI method the embryo is formed in

155.Test tube baby is a programme of

156.How many sentences are correct from I-IV?

I.The Big Bang theory attempts to explain the Origin of Universe

II.Inorganic molecules formed from organic constituents

III.The geological history of earth closely correlates with the biological history of earth

IV.Embryological support for evolution was proposed by Karl Ernst

157.Cheetah and human being share

158.Find out the mismatch

I.Eyes of octopus and mammals                         Analogy

II.Tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita             Homology

III.Sweet potato and potato             Homology

IV.Arm of Man and  wings of bat                                  Analogy

159.Which one of the statement is true regarding evolution by anthropogenic action?

I.Before industrialisation set in, thick growth of almost white-coloured lichen covered the trees – in that background the white winged moth survived but the dark-coloured moth were picked out by predators.

II.Excess use of herbicides, pesticides, etc., has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a much lesser time scale.

III.Evolution is not a directed process in the sense of determinism.

IV.It is a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation in the organisms.

160.Branching descent theory was concept of

161.

1. Find out the odd one

162.Saltation is

163.Green revolution was a major step where……….. was introduced

164.Typhoid is confirmed by

165.What percentage of MALT constitutes the lymphoid tissue in human body?

166.Sensitivity to allergen is relieved by the application of

167.AIDS is diagnosed by

168.Select the correct  statement  from the  ones  given below

169.Opiate narcotic is

170.Give correct matching of causative agents and diseases

171.Bt toxin does not kill Bacillus because

172.In order to obtain an antibiotic resistant gene DNA have to be digested in

173.In recombinant DNA technology, a plasmid vector must be cleaved by

174.The two main vectors used in genetic engineering to carry genes into bacteria are…..I…..and…II….

I and II are

175.Which  of  the  following  restriction  enzymes  produces  blunt  ends?

176.In gene therapy, DNA is inserted into a cell to compensate for

177.The governing body that control the ethical issues of GM research is

178.Which of the following  Bt crops is being grown in India?

179.The Ti plasmid is often used for making transgenic plants. The plasmid is found in

180.Transgenic animals have