E2II PART TEST 11 for NEET 2022

1.Atoms having different atomic number as well as different mass number but having same number of neutrons 

2.n a radioactive substance at t = 0, the number of atoms is 8×10^4, its half-life period is 3 yr. the number of atoms 1×10^4 will remain after interval

3. The half-life of radium is 1622 years. How long will it take for seven-eighth of a given amount of radium to decay

4.The mass of a proton is 1.0073 u and that of the neutron is 1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit) The binding energy of 2He^4 is (mass of helium nucleus = 4.0015 u)

5.A free neutron decays into a proton, an electron and 

6.The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as 9750 counts/min at t = 0 and as 975 counts/min at t = 5 min. The decay constant is approximately:

7.The energy equivalent of one atomic mass unit is:

8.A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is:

9.What happens to the mass number and the atomic number of an element when it emits γ−radiation?

10.For radioactive material, the half-life is 10 minutes. If initially, there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is :

11. The following configuration of the logic gate is equivalent to

12.Three ideal diodes are connected to the battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is

13.In a common emitter transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across resistance of 1 kΩ is 2V. If the base resistance is 200Ω and the current amplification factor is 50, the input signal voltage will be

14.A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at Vc = 10V. When base current is changed from 10mA to 30mA, it produces a change in emitter current from 2A to 4A, the current amplification factor is

15. When a p-n junction is forward biased:

16. Which of the following is correct for n-type semiconductor?

17. The current through an ideal p-n junction diode shown in the circuit will be –

18.In forward bias, the width of potential barrier in a P-N junction diode 

19.

Which one is reverse-biased

which of the following answer is correct?

20.Which one is in forward bias

which of the following answer is correct?

21.The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowing through the resistance R1 will be

22.A n-p-n transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of 800Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuits is 192 Ω the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be

23. If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10V is applied as shown,

then the output across R_L will be 

24.In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an external resistance R = 100 Ω  and an e.m.f of 3.5 V. If the barrier potential developed across the diode is 0.5 V, the current in the circuit will be

25.The given graph represents V-I characteristic for a semiconductor device. Which of the following statement is correct?

26.The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on

(i)type of semiconductor material

(ii)amount of doping

(iii)temperature

Which one of the following is correct

27. The circuit is equivalent to

28.To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:

29.

. Consider the junction diode as an ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is: 

30.A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band-gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal of wavelength:

31.The correct statement among the following is,

32.The ore that contains the metal in the form of fluoride is,

33.The Mond process is used for the,

34.With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps to predict the feasibility of its,

35.In the Hall-Heroult process, aluminium is formed at the cathode. The cathode is made out of,

36.The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salts is,

37.Which of the following ores is best concentrated by froth floatation method?

38. The pair does not require calcination is,

39.Sulphide ores are common for the metals,

40.Oxidation states of the metal in the minerals haematite and magnetite, respectively are,

41.Native silver metal forms a water-soluble complex with a dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in the presence of,

42.Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by,

43.Which ore contains both iron and copper?

44.The reaction that does not define calcination is,

45.Hydrogen gas will not reduce

46.Which of the given statements is incorrect about glycogen?

47.Number of stereocenters present in linear and cyclic structures of glucose are respectively,

48.The peptide that gives positive ceric ammonium nitrate and carbylamine tests is,

49.Fructose and glucose can be distinguished by,

50.Maltose on treatment with dilute HCl gives,

51.Thiol group is present in,

52.Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives,

53.Two forms of D – glucopyranose, are called

54.Which of the following pairs give positive Tollen’s test?

55.Which of the vitamins given below is water soluble?

56.Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in photosynthesis involves,

57.Which of the following tests cannot be used for identifying amino acids?

58.Match the following:

Which of the following is the best matched options?

59.The correct order of amino acids present in the tripeptide given below,

60.The following carbohydrate is,

61. Find out the odd one

62. Echolocation is found in

63. The birth and death rates of places are given below. Which one will have the least population growth?

Place Birth Rate/1000 Death Rate/1000

P                             15                                       5

Q                             25                                           10

R                         35                                       18

S                              48                                  41

64. The correct equation for the exponential population growth curve is?

1. Read the following statements and select the correct option

Statement 1– The prickly pear cactus introduced in Australia in early 1920s caused havoc by spreading rapidly into millions of hectares of rangeland.

Statement-2 – When certain exotic species are introduced into a geographical area, they become invasive and start spreading fast because the invaded land does not have its natural predators.

66. According to Allen’s rule, the mammals from colder climates have

67. Some animals preferred to be conformers than regulators, because

68. Water holding capacity of soil depends upon

69. The given graph represents how three different living organisms(  X , Y, Z ) cope with the external environment conditions. Study the graph and select the correct option regarding X, Y, Z.

70. What does the shape of the given age pyramids reflects about the growth status of the related population?

i                                        ii

1. Match the column

Column-I       Column-II

1. Beta diversity i.    Tropical areas
2. Rich biodiversity ii.   Dodo
3. Gamma diversity iii.  Between community diversity
4. Extinct species iv.  Great Indian bustard
5. Critically endangered species v.   Diversity of whole geographical 

Region

72. Natural extinction refers to

i. Extinction abetted by human activities

ii. Slow replacement of existing species

iii. Also known as background extinction

iv. A small population is most likely to be extinct

73. Which of the following is incorrect?

74. Ex situ conservation is for

75. India has ______ biosphere reserves, _______ national parks and _______ wildlife sanctuaries till 2018.

76. Assertion:  Biodiversity hotspots are the regions which possess low levels of species richness, high degree of endemism, no loss of habitat.

Reason: Total number of biodiversity hotspots in the world is 32 with two of these hotspots found in India.

77. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

78. The distribution of species diversity on earth may be best described as

79. Which is the correct match?

80. In a national park, protection is provided to?

81. Which of the following metals is used as catalyst in catalytic converters?

82. Which of the following is the way to control vehicular air-pollution in Indian cities?. 

83. The amount of biodegradable organic matter in sewage water can be estimated by measuring?

84. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in?

85. Which of the following statement is not correct?

i. Mercury accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolised

ii. In the process of Biomagnification, concentration of DDT is increased in successive trophic levels

iii. Accumulation of cadmium can cause thinning of egg shell in bird

iv. DDT accumulation is a major cause of reduced population of fish eating birds

v. Biomagnification occurs only in aquatic food chain

86.  High concentration of nitrates and phosphates in water can accelerate which of the following phenomenon?

87. Polyblend is

88. _________ is a farmer in Sonipat who practices integrated organic farming

89. Select the correct statement about the following

90. The most dangerous isotope to human being is