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AIR and Correct answer keys will be available after 24 Hours of Live PT 12. Keep your eye on Test Series QA PDF for the same.
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Question 1 of 90
1. Question
1.Palmella stage is a response due to toxic chemicals and they appear in a mass of mucilage, found in-
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Question 2 of 90
2. Question
2.spirullina and chlorella are respectively-
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Question 3 of 90
3. Question
3.zoospores are absent in-
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Question 4 of 90
4. Question
4.All of the following can be a part of Eukaryotic cell wall except-
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Question 5 of 90
5. Question
5.which of the following bryophytes has advanced features like short-meristematic tissue?
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Question 6 of 90
6. Question
6. Consider statement a, b, c, d for pteridophytes.
a. cones/strobili are sporophyte stage(2n)
b. all are homosporous except Selaginella and Lycopodium
c. gametophyte is free-living but inconspicuous and bears antheridia, archegonia
d. club moss belongs to pteridophytes
Which is/are true?
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Question 7 of 90
7. Question
7.Followings are uses of pteridophytes.
a. sphenophyte/equisetum stores silica in stem helps in scouring and polishing metals.
b. azolla is a fern of paddy plant with N2 fixation property.
Choose correct statement/statements
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Question 8 of 90
8. Question
8.Identical jacketed sex organ, first true land plant with vasculature is-
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Question 9 of 90
9. Question
9.Assertion: Pteridophytes are precursor to the seed habit.
Reason: zygotes develop into embryo inside female gametophyte in case of heterosporous.
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Question 10 of 90
10. Question
10.Consider statements a, b, c for Gymnosperms.
a.They have open vascular bundle with cambium
b.They have xylem without vessels and phloem without sieve tube, companion cell
c.They have dimorphic leaves
How many statements is/are true?
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Question 11 of 90
11. Question
11.Male gametophyte is smallest for-
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Question 12 of 90
12. Question
12.gametophytic(n) endosperm is found in-
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Question 13 of 90
13. Question
13.A and B are two Pteridophytes which fix N2 and Phosphate respectively-
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Question 14 of 90
14. Question
14.consider stamens regarding monocots.
a. Tap root system absent and short-lived adventitious system present.
b. scattered vascular bundle present
c. less undifferentiated tissues in stem and leaf in compared to dicot.
d. pith are absent
Which statements are true?
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Question 15 of 90
15. Question
15.Which of the following plants have vessel in their xylem?
Pinus, Cycas, gnetum, Psilotum, equisetum, wolffia, Ginko
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Question 16 of 90
16. Question
16.Zoospores are absent in-
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Question 17 of 90
17. Question
17.This Single cell protein produced using spirulina. This is –
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Question 18 of 90
18. Question
18.Which of the following is true about Funaria.
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Question 19 of 90
19. Question
19.Find wrong about boron-
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Question 20 of 90
20. Question
20. which is wrong about Cu?
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Question 21 of 90
21. Question
21.Zn is related with ‘x’ hormone and Zn deficiency causes ‘Y’? X and Y respectively
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Question 22 of 90
22. Question
22.Hydrolysis during photosynthesis needs all except-
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Question 23 of 90
23. Question
23.How calcium causes irregular cell division?
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Question 24 of 90
24. Question
24.Marsh Spot in Pea is due to deficiency of
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Question 25 of 90
25. Question
25.Chlorosis occur in absence of all except
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Question 26 of 90
26. Question
26.which of the following is true regarding this plant –
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Question 27 of 90
27. Question
27. Find mismatched values with respect to its definition-
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Question 28 of 90
28. Question
28.A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called-
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Question 29 of 90
29. Question
29.Thiobacillus helps in-
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Question 30 of 90
30. Question
30.Photolysis of water during light reaction requires-
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Question 31 of 90
31. Question
31.In which of the following, the oxidation number of Fe is +1?
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Question 32 of 90
32. Question
32.H2O2changes Cr2O72-ion to CrO5 in an acidic medium, the oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
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Question 33 of 90
33. Question
33.Concentrated H2SO4 acts as a strong oxidising agent. In which of the reactions, is it not acting as an oxidising agent?
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Question 34 of 90
34. Question
34.One mole of ferrous oxalate is oxidized by how many moles of potassium permanganate in acid medium?
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Question 35 of 90
35. Question
35.A compound of Xe and F is found to have 53.5% of Xe. What is the oxidation number of Xe in this compound? [Xe=131, F= 19]
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Question 36 of 90
36. Question
36.Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation of iron?
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Question 37 of 90
37. Question
37.One mole of N2H4 loses 10 moles of electrons to form a new compound y. Assuming that all nitrogen appears in the new compound, what is the oxidation state of nitrogen in y.
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Question 38 of 90
38. Question
38.The equivalent mass of oxidising agent in the following reaction is
SO2 + 2H2S → 3S + 2H2O
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Question 39 of 90
39. Question
39.The equivalent weight of KIO3 in the reaction
2Cr(OH)3 + 4O+ KIO3 → 2Cr+ 5H2O + KI
is
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Question 40 of 90
40. Question
40.xNa2HAsO3 + yNaBrO3 + zHCl → NaBr + H3AsO4 + NaCl
The values of x, y and z in the above redox reaction are respectively:
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Question 41 of 90
41. Question
41.Which of the following is a redox reaction?
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Question 42 of 90
42. Question
42.The electrode potential data are given below:
Fe3+ + e à Fe2+; E0=0.77V
Al3+ + 3e à Al; E0=-1.66V
Br2 + 2e à 2Br–; E0=1.80V
Based on the data, the reducing power of Fe2+,Al,Br– will increase in the order
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Question 43 of 90
43. Question
43.The number of moles of potassium permanganate reduced by one mole of potassium iodide in alkaline medium is
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Question 44 of 90
44. Question
44.The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2, H2S respectively, are
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Question 45 of 90
45. Question
45.Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction?
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Question 46 of 90
46. Question
46.This on reduction with LiAlH4 produces secondary amine
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Question 47 of 90
47. Question
47.Which of the following is formed in the reaction of an aldehyde and primary amine?
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Question 48 of 90
48. Question
48.In the reaction shown below, the major product(s) formed
is/are
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Question 49 of 90
49. Question
49.The most basic compound among the following is
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Question 50 of 90
50. Question
50.Carbylamine forms from aliphatic or aromatic primary amine via which of the following intermediates?
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Question 51 of 90
51. Question
51.Predict about the relative boiling point of the following two
amines:
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Question 52 of 90
52. Question
52.Which statement is true regarding the following structure?
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Question 53 of 90
53. Question
53.Which reaction sequence would be best to prepare 3-chloroanilne from benzene?
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Question 54 of 90
54. Question
54.Arrange the following amines in the order of increasing basicity.
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Question 55 of 90
55. Question
55. Towards electrophilic substitution, the most reactive will be
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Question 56 of 90
56. Question
56.The product (C) obtained in the following sequence of reactions
is
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Question 57 of 90
57. Question
57.In the following reactions, the product S is
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Question 58 of 90
58. Question
58.Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium generates
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Question 59 of 90
59. Question
59.Tautomerism will be exhibited by
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Question 60 of 90
60. Question
60.What is the product of the following series of reactions?
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Question 61 of 90
61. Question
61.Two slits in Young’s experiment have widths in the ratio 1:25. The ratio of intensity at the maxima and minima in the interference pattern Imax/Imin is
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Question 62 of 90
62. Question
62.At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a single slit diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the Huygen’s wavelet from the edge of the slit and the wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is
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Question 63 of 90
63. Question
63.A beam of light of 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is
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Question 64 of 90
64. Question
64.In the Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen (where the path difference is λ ) is K where λ being the wavelength of light used. The intensity at a point where the path difference is λ /4 will be
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Question 65 of 90
65. Question
65.A parallel beam of fast-moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, then which of the following statements is correct?
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Question 66 of 90
66. Question
66.Two ideal slits S1 and S2 are at a distance d apart, and illuminated by light of wavelength λ passing through an ideal source slit S placed on the line through S2 as shown. The distance between the planes of slits and the source slit is D. A screen is held at a distance D from the plane of the slits. The minimum value of d for which there is darkness at O is
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Question 67 of 90
67. Question
67.Young’s double-slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that the 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where the 5th dark fringe lies in the air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly:-
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Question 68 of 90
68. Question
68.A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5 x 10-5 cm. The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the center of the screen is :
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Question 69 of 90
69. Question
69. Unpolarised light is incident from the air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index ‘μ’. At a particular angle of incidence ‘i’, it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation?
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Question 70 of 90
70. Question
70.In a double-slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m away. Monochromatic light of wavelength 500nm is used. What will be the width of each slit for obtaining ten maxima of double-slit within the central maxima of a single-slit pattern?
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Question 71 of 90
71. Question
71.A parallel beam of fast-moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statements is correct?
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Question 72 of 90
72. Question
72.The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (Kelvin) and mass m, is
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Question 73 of 90
73. Question
73.Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectric will reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A relative to C is
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Question 74 of 90
74. Question
74.When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λλ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λλ, the stopping potential is V4V4 .The threshold wavelength for metallic surface is:
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Question 75 of 90
75. Question
75.A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is (c=velocity of light)
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Question 76 of 90
76. Question
76.A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength λ. The stopping potential for photoelectric current for this light is 3Vo. If the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2λ. the stopping potential is Vo. The threshold wavelength for this surface for the photoelectric effect is:
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Question 77 of 90
77. Question
77.Which of the following figures represent the variation of particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength?
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Question 78 of 90
78. Question
78.A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength λ and λ/2.
If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work function of the surface of the materiall is (h=Planck’s constant, c=speed of light)CorrectIncorrect -
Question 79 of 90
79. Question
79.Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a metal with work function 2.28 eV. The de-Broglie wavelength of the emitted electron is
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Question 80 of 90
80. Question
80.In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is
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Question 81 of 90
81. Question
81. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV
respectively illuminate a metallic surface whose function is 0.5 eV successively.
Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be
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Question 82 of 90
82. Question
82.Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum
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Question 83 of 90
83. Question
83.Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. According to Bohr’s theory, the spectral lines emitted by hydrogen will be:
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Question 84 of 90
84. Question
84. Frequency of the series limit of Balmer series of hydrogen atom in terms of Rydberg constant R and velocity of light C is:
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Question 85 of 90
85. Question
85.Consider the spectral line resulting from transition n = 2 to n = 1 in the atoms and ions given below. The shortest wavelength is given by
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Question 86 of 90
86. Question
86.The valence electron in alkali metal is a
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Question 87 of 90
87. Question
87.Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s atomic model:
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Question 88 of 90
88. Question
88.Energy of an electron in an excited hydrogen atom is -3.4 eV. Its angular momentum will be (h = 6.626 ×× 10-34 J-s)
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Question 89 of 90
89. Question
89.As per Bohr model, the minimum energy (in eV) required to remove the electron from the ground state of double ionized lithium (Z=3) is
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Question 90 of 90
90. Question
90.The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited states is
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